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USER COMMENTS BY “ DISCERNING BELIEVER ”
Page 1 | Page 11 ·  Found: 500 user comments posted recently.
Survey1/3/08 12:26 PM
Discerning Believer  Find all comments by Discerning Believer
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Thanks Lurker.

I pulled it since you clarified his last post.

What JD fails to realize is that Jesus IS God. So when we say the righteousness of Christ, we are in fact affirming his deity as the Son of God and God the Son.

It was not clear if JD believed that we are declared righteous based on the merits of Christ or based on our own meritorious acts.


Survey1/2/08 4:46 PM
Discerning Believer  Find all comments by Discerning Believer
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Mode Facts wrote:
Oh now come on DB, you know very well if I list all the Paedo docs, you will simply list all the Baptist docs. We've been here before.
The simple fact is that after studying Greek at Theol college I saw that the word baptizw, is used in many ways of getting wet. Not all imply totally wet. One of them implies immersion, but not all. That is true for the Bible and classical Greek lit.
But you guys in the "Baptizw Denom" have a vested reason for denying the above and deriving your own definition. After all you are the "Baptist Church" - and this is the rock on which you have separated from the Protestant churches and built your denominational version upon.
What in effect you have done is picked one definition and built your theology upon that.
Are you admitting that Calvin was in error in his institutes on the mode of baptism?

Survey1/2/08 3:54 PM
Discerning Believer  Find all comments by Discerning Believer
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Uh.. Oh wrote:
You sound like a Presby stuck record.
You should read the Reformers - even they never denied that the meaning of the word Baptizw meant to immerse. Its only the later Presbys who have tried the impossible, and failed miserably, doing themselves great discredit in the process.
Perhaps he should read John Calvin himself who wrote that the proper mode is immersion.

"But whether the person being baptized should be wholly immersed, and
whether thrice or once, whether he should only be sprinkled with poured
water — these details are of no importance, but ought to be optional to
churches according to the diversity of countries. Yet the word “baptize”
means to immerse, and it is clear that the rite of immersion was observed
in the ancient church" (Calvin's Institutes, Book 4. Chapter 15, Section 19)


Survey1/2/08 3:14 PM
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Mode Facts wrote:
No Yamil.
It's that Baptizw does not mean immersion.
Nothing in the Bible indicates "all wet" ideology.
Immersion was invented and initiated much later, long after Biblical times.
And I suppose you have credible documentation to support your statements. If so, please provide.

Survey1/2/08 6:26 AM
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Alan H wrote:
Excellent post, DB! I asked someone (perhaps you; I don't remember) a long time ago how to get the Greek fonts to display. I still haven't been able to figure it out. What Bible program do you use? I vaguely remember that person saying that they pasted the Greek words directly from their Bible program. I use the "Online Bible" (not an online Bible); it doesn't work.
I hope you have a great New Year DB. You too, Yamil...
Alan, I use esword and just copy and paste my Greek text into the comment box. I also woder if your internet browser has anything to do with that.

Yamil, if they do not mean the same theing, then why are you forcing Rom. 5:1 to say that faith is the grounds or the cause of justification and not the means by which it is received.


Survey1/1/08 11:07 PM
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Yamil,

Does "through faith" and "by faith" mean the exact same thing?

I trust the KJV in that it means what it says, however you are trying to make it mean what you want it to mean. "By faith" you are rendering it, "being justified because of faith" or "being justified on account of your faith" which by the Greek text you cannot prove your presupposition.

When the Holy Spirit breathed the words to the aposlte Paul, He knew exactly what he wanted to say. He didn't breathe the KJV English to the translators inspite of what the Ruckmanites say.


Survey1/1/08 10:34 PM
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So Yamil, would you go so far as to say that you believe that there is no difference between "through faith" and "by faith" regardless of the underlying Greek text that they are indeed different. But would you say thay mean exactly the same thing.

Survey1/1/08 10:05 PM
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Yamil,

You basically have two choices.

You are either justified "by faith" (εκ πιστεως )

Or you are justifed "by faith" (δια της πιστεως )

The second rendering is also translated "through faith"

Eph 2:8 For by grace are ye saved "through faith;" δια της πιστεως

The Greek word δια is also translated "by" in 458 verses in the New Testament such as "by the prophets" or "through the prophets".

Thus to claim that "faith" is the grounds of justification, the Greek word δια would have to been used. The text would also be translated "justified "through faith" with the definite article "της" indicating "through [this, that, the] faith" as found in Eph. 2:8.

But such is not the case with Rom. 5:1. That was the point Pastor Joel Beeke was trying to get across.


Survey12/30/07 10:15 PM
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Adding to Verna and Observer, The Greek verb "πιστευοντι" which is "believeth" is in the Present Active Participle Masculine Singular Dative.

In other words, "for it is (present tense) the power of God unto salvation to every one that [is believing]; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek."

It is the power of God unto salvation for those who already are believers.

(1Co 1:18) "For the preaching of the cross is to them that perish foolishness; but unto us which are saved it is the power of God."

(1Co 1:23-24) "But we preach Christ crucified, unto the Jews a stumblingblock, and unto the Greeks foolishness; 24. But unto them which are called, both Jews and Greeks, Christ the power of God, and the wisdom of God."

(1Co 2:14) "But the natural man receiveth not the things of the Spirit of God: for they are foolishness unto him: neither can he know them, because they are spiritually discerned."


Survey12/28/07 12:03 AM
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Walt wrote:
DB,

...In regard to infants, we are not told much beyond that God ordinarily saves through the preaching and reading of the word. The gospel message of Christ is generally the outward means of our salvation, and Christ being the foundation and grounds of our Salvation.
However, for those who do not ordinarily hear the gospel, as infants or those who have a disability, we can only have hope that the Father will justify them through His election. As a believer, I can give glory that I know most human fathers would do anything and everything to save their children, and this is the hope and faith I have in my Heavenly Father. I cannot for certain guarantee every mother and father that their son or daughter, whether infant or not, has gone into eternal life everlasting, because I have not been gifted omniscience or omnipresence, but I can certainly believe.

I received sad news today that my 3 month old great-nephew passed away this morning. So now this question has hit home. Now I am trying to encourage my nephew and his wife that "such is the kingdom of God." How does one comfort if you have no assurance in God's grace on infants who can't answer to themselves. I have great peace and assurance that He does.

Survey12/23/07 9:56 PM
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Good night Walt. I am reading two excellent books, "The Doctrine of Justification" by Buchanan and "Redemption, Accomplished and Applied" by John Murray. Good works by these two. I listened to the MP3s of Redemption... by SWRB and bought the book as well.

Survey12/23/07 9:37 PM
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Hey Walt,

Just popping by to say hello dear brother.

I find it amazing explaining the regeneration of elect infants and justifying them for the kingdom of God goes completely over Yamil's head.

I well explained to him that God is a just God and will not condemn anyone to a sinner's hell without them having an understanding of why they are going there. Infants and mentally challenged individuals do not have the capacity to know right from wrong or the penal sanctions for disobedience. That is why God regenerates them, justifies them and declares them righteous based on the merits of Christ therefore meeting God's requirement of entering Heaven. It also proves that the new birth is soley the act of God. He doesn't need man's cooperation or permission to regenerate anyone. He chooses who He wills. Yes Yamil, this is unconditional election.

Any thoughts Walt?


Survey12/23/07 5:39 PM
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Yamil, so what you are saying is that Jesus was wrong and that one does not have to be born again to enter heaven and that being born by the Spirit is not necesary afterall.

I see. Just as I suspected. You agree with the doctrine of original sin, but you don't agree with its penal sanctions and its remedy. Hmmm!


Survey12/23/07 5:12 PM
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Yamil,

Since you think you have all of this figured out, answer my original question which dealt with an infant dying in infancy. I wasn't talking about before the baby was born. That was your rabbit trail.


Survey12/23/07 4:53 PM
Discerning Believer  Find all comments by Discerning Believer
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Dr. Yamil Luciano wrote:
Discerning Believer wrote:
Tell me then, how does an infant dying in infance get to heaven without being born again of the Spirit.

I have the answer, but first you will need to explain how is it that an elect infant can be born again before being born the first time?
Let me give you a hint: Ha!

They were chosen before the foundation of the world. Jeremiah was a prime example. (Jer. 1:15)

Secondly, life begins at conception, not from the time they come out of the womb. So God at any time from the point of conception can regenerate an infant.

So now that I have ansered yours, answer mine.


Survey12/23/07 3:43 PM
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JD,

The kingdom of God is the eternal abode of the saved. The kingdom of heaven is the celestial heavens and earth.

The kingdom of God are inhabited by those who are born into His kingdom. They are His sons and daughters.

Tell me then, how does an infant dying in infance get to heaven without being born again of the Spirit.


Survey12/23/07 3:29 PM
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JD,

Can an infant enter Heaven without being born again?

If Jesus says that one must be born again to enter Heaven, how praytell does an infant or mentally challenged person enter heaven without meeting God's requirement of being born-again. He is still unregenerate.

The wages of sin is death, physically and spiritually.

God demands perfect righteousness in order to enter Heaven and unless he is justified, he is still in his sin state.


Survey12/23/07 2:15 PM
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If children were born sinless and innocent as JD supposes, then why do some infants die in infancy?

Was not physical death a part of the curse?

Since God is a just God and will not condemn anyone to a sinner's hell without them being consciously aware of why they are being cast there. Infants and mentally challenged individuals do not have the capacity of knowing right from wrong or the penal sanctions for disobedience. (Rom. 5:13-20)

Scripture tells us in John 3:3 "Jesus answered and said unto him, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born again, he cannot see the kingdom of God" and in 3:5 "Jesus answered, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God" and lastly in 3:7 "Marvel not that I said unto thee, Ye must be born again."

That is God's requirement for Heaven. In order for infants to enter heaven they must be regenerated and born drom above. This is soley an act of God, and therefore He regenerates and justifies infants who He elected that will die in infaancy. Non elect infants will not die in infancy.

That proves a problem for those whobelieve in do it yourself salvation. God works without human input or cooperation.


Survey12/23/07 7:43 AM
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If JD is correct, then no children would ever die in infancy because physical death is part of the curse of sin.

Perhaps Yamil should have a 3 way conversation with his pastor.


Survey12/22/07 10:58 PM
Discerning Believer  Find all comments by Discerning Believer
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Dr. Yamil Luciano wrote:
3. Let's have a three-way conversation with your pastor so that he can know exactly how you feel about "most" dispensationalist.
Is that suppose to be a threat?

Perhaps we should call your pastor and tell him about your behavior on these forums. Also the fact that you claim to be a doctor, but will not post your credentials where you earned your degree. If it is an honorary doctorate, where from?

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