Since the words, omniscient, omnipotent and omnipresent are not in the KJV, do you also deny that God possesses those attributes as well?

1 a: superlative in quality : EXCELLENT
b: of the most exalted kind : SUPREME sovereign virtue
c: having generalized curative powers a sovereign remedy
d: of an unqualified nature : UNMITIGATED sovereign contempt
e: having undisputed ascendancy : PARAMOUNT
2 a: possessed of supreme power a sovereign ruler
b: unlimited in extent : ABSOLUTE
c: enjoying autonomy : INDEPENDENT sovereign states
3: relating to, characteristic of, or befitting a sovereign

In 161 verses in the Old Testament, The LORD declared "I am the LORD".

264 verses in the entire Bible, the term "the Lord thy God" is found.

"God"
1 capitalized : the supreme or ultimate reality: as
a: the Being perfect in power, wisdom, and goodness who is worshipped as creator and ruler of the universe.

2: a being or object believed to have more than natural attributes and powers and to require human worship; specifically : one controlling a particular aspect or part of reality

3: a person or thing of supreme value

4: a powerful ruler

"LORD"
1: one having power and authority over others:
a: a ruler by hereditary right or preeminence to whom service and obedience are due

2capitalized a: GOD 1 b: JESUS

Do you maintain that the WCF was literally "God-breathed" in the same manner as the Holy Scriptures themselves?

Why do you conveniently omit verse 13, as do most fundamental dispensationalist preachers "Which were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God."

According to your theology, was it virtually impossible for Nicodemus to be born-again by the Holy Spirit, regenerated and quickened and see the kingdom of God or enter the kingdom of God until after Jesus died on the cross.

I am speaking to the doctrine of unconditional election period. The God of the Old Testament chose the Israelites to be His covenant people, yet not all were justified by faith (saved), yet they all had the same rights and priviledges to believe God as did their father Abraham.

God's plan has not changed. He still has a covenant family that now incorporated the Gentiles. The grounds for election still apply (unconditional) as well as the conditions for justification and that is still by faith.

Under the New Covenant, the ceremonial laws, which included circumcision and the dietary restrictions have been completed in Christ because they were all types of Christ and pictured the atonement he would make for his people.

So what you are trying to imply is that God chose the children of Israel to be His elect because they believed on Him or made a decision of their own freewill to accept Him as Lord and Savior.

Or did He first choose out a people who were without merit, but out of His good pleasure, established a covenant with him with both physical and spiritual blessings. He instituted laws, ceremonies and offerings for them to obey. Did He not say that He will make them His people and that He will be their God? (Lev. 26:12)

What you are confusing is salvation with divine election. Belief does comes before salvation, justification, not before election. The verb "believeth" in Romans 1:16 is in the present, active tense. Thusly "for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that [is believing]". It is not a future tense as "for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that [will believe].

The other misconception some has is that they equate the doctrine of election to mean the same as salvation (the acquittal of sin, justification) when in fact it is not the same.

God's chosing of a people for Himself is not based on any acts or merits of any man, but a sovereign act of His good pleasure. When he called the children of Israel to be His covenant people, He didn't instantly redeem them of their sin and save their soul. They had to come to that point for themselves by faith. They were still part of God's elect, but were not saved until they were justified by faith. God still has an elect people today comprised of both Jews and Gentiles who will be saved by grace through faith in the person of Jesus Christ.

If it was indeed rhetorical as you saym then Phillip would have said, nothing.

Just goes to show you that you do not take the bible as authoritative but as subordinate to your traditions.

One of the nicest things about scripture is that it is consistent throughout. Salvation comes first then baptism.

Mark 16:15-16
"And he said unto them, Go ye into all the world, and preach the gospel to every creature. 16. He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned."

Acts 2:41
"Then they that gladly received his word were baptized: and the same day there were added unto them about three thousand souls."

They first received the word and then were baptized.

The Philippian jailer was converted and then baptized.