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USER COMMENTS BY “ DR. PHIL ”
Page 1 | Page 11 ·  Found: 494 user comments posted recently.
Survey4/13/08 9:46 AM
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John_for_Christ wrote:
You must be a stranger to logic! Look, I'll go slow for you: You asserted in your last post that God's Word doesn't support polygamy. You offered no proof.

. . .

The logic was simple. Unlike you, I hold to actual logic, not my own imaginary version of it.

Gen. 2:24 only states that every marriage a man has--whether one wife or more--makes him one flesh with his wife. You have to eisegete Scripture to get the idea of monogamy here...

Every one of these statements illustrate "assertion of the consequence". And you assert that you know logical argumentation. What you do know are fallacious arguments.

Simply because you assert that I offer no proof is not evidence that I have offered no proof. Myself and others have over and over defended the faith with scripture, and you and "technicus terminus" have done nothing more than assert your polygamous positions.

"Technicus terminus". . . Now that is a conclusive argument!


Survey4/12/08 5:34 PM
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John_for_Christ wrote:
What you said was rhetoric--no proof, no logic. All you basically said was: "No it isn't!"
Just as you can say that the Bible doesn't teach polygamy, I can say that it does--with equal authority.
However, I can also point to Scripture: Gen. 4:19, Exod. 21:10, Deut. 25:5-10, 2 Sam. 12:8, Jer. 3, Ezek. 23, et. al. There's also the proof in that God did not EVER condemn those who were polygamists for polygamy.
So, by using Scripture, I can claim GREATER authority for my statement: POLYGAMY IS BLESSED AND SANCTIFIED BY GOD!

So, by that logic, we should only have ONE child, because Jacob and Esau fought with one another? This is simply fallacious logic...

You might say it, but your word doesn't carry any authority. You have no concept of logic.

Jesus' argued against divorce by sighting how things were "from the beginning". If we look at the same point we see how things were "from the beginning", and "from the beginning" God did not give Adam more than one wife. Therefore, we may conclude that if things have changed from that point, any allowances were done because of the hardness of men's heart.

One has argued that God "could have given Adam" more than one wife, but that is mere speculation and not logic.


News Item4/12/08 7:50 AM
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Dan wrote:
I’m glad to see your post Dr Phil. I just got the hardcopy of that report in the mail yesterday.
All of the police protection in the world will be totally ineffective against the pope’s main enemy … which is God. The pope (and any other unsaved person) is in the gun sights of God and will remain so until He causes them to repent and believe or pulls the trigger.
Amen Dan. Good comment.

Stephen Hamilton wrote:
Who pays for all the security? The NYPD is financed by the tax-payer, right? So American tax-payers must stump up for the security of the head of one denomination - what happened to the "separation of church and state"? One thing which will not be "unprecedented" however is the blatant idolatry and paganism on show. We have sadly seen it all before.
This is a good point too, Mr. Hamilton. With all of the money that the US gives to the Vatican annually already ($100+ million/yr) you would think that the Antichrist could afford his own security. But hey, what else can the pedophile bum do?

Survey4/12/08 7:41 AM
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Born Again NT Bible Believer wrote:
I am a born again man. I believe in polygamy because the Bible teaches it.
Sex is good in marriage. Thats why Martin Luther was involved in Philip of Hesse's second marriage. Martin Luther also said, "I confess that I cannot forbid a person to marry several wives, for it does not contradict the Scripture. If a man wishes to marry more than one wife he should be asked whether he is satisfied in his conscience that he may do so in accordance with the word of God. In such a case the civil authority has nothing to do in the matter." (De Wette II, 459, ibid., pp. 329-330.)
This is a red herring to avoid the most important point. The Bible alone is the Word of God. The Bible does not teach polygamy. If anything, the examples of polygamy in the OT provide illustrations of the trouble that arises from polygamous marriages. For example, the Bible considered Pinninah as Hannah's enemy.

There isn't a Christian woman alive who truly loves her husband that would care to have him have conjugal relations with another woman. As much as I like Martin Luther on the doctrine of justification by faith alone, he was not inspired, and his works are not scripture. It is easy to find foolish statements of men to support a point.


Survey4/11/08 10:20 PM
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John_for_Christ wrote:
Several logical flaws here:
(1) There are NO Scriptures that define marriage as just two individuals. This has yet to be proven against Scriptural evidence to the contrary.
(2) The Ancient Jews and the Old Testament do not distinguish between monogamy and polygamy as forms of marriage. . .
Therefore, without specific statements to the contrary, the baseline is that polygamy and monogamy were the "norm". Deviations from the norm must be proven.
(3) Since the norm was polygamy/monogamy, the LEAST PLAUSIBLE HYPOTHESIS is that passages such as Genesis 2:24 reflect monogamy, when other Scripture, history, and grammar all contradict your hypothesis.

Or could it be that your biases are coloring your viewpoint? Which explanation is the one YOU desire?

Logical flaws?? Try again John,

1) It is not I who fails to see the plenary teaching in the word "two" from 1 Cor. 6:16. It is not I who sees that Adam had many wives in the beginning.

2) The "norm" or normative behavior is not the "Law". You are supposed to have more revealation than the Jews of the OT.

3) Again, you only assert the desired consequence here. How can this be objective? The norm does not justify sin. "Thou shalt not follow a multitude to do evil."


Survey4/11/08 6:19 PM
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John_for_Christ wrote:
You've never demonstrated how Genesis 2:24 actually APPLIES to polygamy.
. . . this only describes a man joining his first wife, and states nothing positive or negative about having more than one wife.
At worst (for your point-of-view) it means that a man is one flesh with his wife--no matter whether she is his first or 101st wife. This is the view Paul the apostle took in 1 Cor. 6:16. Therefore, you are disagreeing with Paul and GOD, not with us.
Typical argument from the least plausible hypothesis. How can Gen. 2:24 be relevant to that which should not exist if only "TWO (not many) becoming one flesh is maintained"? 1 Cor. 6:16

In the least plausible hypothesis argument all of the scriptures that define the acceptable marriage of only two individuals is ignored. Thus, the only accepted explanation by the polygamists is the one desired. For example: "I left a saucer of milk and cookies outside overnight. In the morning, the milk and cookies were gone. Clearly, this proves there is a Santa Claus."

The least plausible hypothesis is the same method as RCC's
"there is nothing in scripture that specifically forbids the worship of Mary, therefore it must be okay to worship Mary especially since she is Jesus' mother"


News Item4/11/08 12:12 PM
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Mike wrote:
The first paragraph should read:
"The New York City Police Department is pulling out all the stops to protect Antichrist during his visit to New York next week. From rooftop snipers to hovering helicopters, it will all resemble the security operations used to protect the president."
The police protecting Antichrist!
[URL=http://www.trinityfoundation.org/PDF/review275aantichrist.pdf]]]Antichrist Is Coming[/URL]

Survey4/11/08 11:17 AM
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Adelphos wrote:
More Cavalier Dismissals...
Well, I am proud to fit in with Abraham, Jacob, Moses, Gideon, David and other faithful followers of God!
Adelphos,

Finally . . . something you say that makes sense: "I am proud . . ."

Proverbs 16:5


Survey4/11/08 11:06 AM
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Adelphos wrote:
Dr. Phil
Ok, let us deal with logic then:
Adelphos,

"'people specific' commands". Wow! What a stretch!

Nothing new in your arguments, therefore, your arguments now move into the Ad nauseum phase. So, this endless debate is over for me as far as I am concerned. You build your harem and justify yourself with fallacious arguments. You shall fit in well with the Muslims. But, we shall see what holds up in the final analysis.


Survey4/11/08 9:46 AM
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Adelphos wrote:
Inconsistent reasoning and exegesis is the foundations for a "monogomist only" position. It is quite fascinating to see how they practice interpretation. They ignore some passages, while embracing ones that seem to endorse their position. Yet, they completely ignore passages that may suggest another position. I am quite amazed! This is the same thing I have experienced when conversing with Jehovah Witnesses!
Blessings!
"And thinkest thou this, O man, that judgest them which do such things, and doest the same, that thou shalt escape the judgment of God?" Rom. 2:3

You have still failed to show how Gen. 2:24 has been repealed. Your only defense is to say that because God allows the eating of meat, this means it is okay to have a "harem". Another fallacious argument by Bad Analogy:

Claiming that two situations are highly similar, when they aren't. For example, "The solar system reminds me of an atom, with planets orbiting the sun like electrons orbiting the nucleus. We know that electrons can jump from orbit to orbit; so we must look to ancient records for sightings of planets jumping from orbit to orbit also."

Or, "The broader the river, the shallower it is. Therefore, the broader the mind, the shallower it is."


Survey4/11/08 6:55 AM
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"The husband of one wife." 1 Tim. 3:2
"The only true exposition is . . that in a bishop he expressly condemns polygamy, which at that time the Jews almost reckoned to be lawful. This corruption was borrowed by them partly from sinful imitation of the Fathers, (for they who read that Abraham, Jacob, David, and others of the same class, were married to more wives than one at the same time, thought that it was lawful for them also to do the same) and partly from neighboring nations; for the inhabitants of the East never observed that conscientiousness and fidelity in marriage which was proper. However that might be, polygamy was exceedingly prevalent among them; and therefore with great propriety does Paul enjoin that a bishop should be free from this stain.
. . .Paul forbids polygamy in all who hold the office of a bishop, because it is a mark of an unchaste man, and of one who does not observe conjugal fidelity.
But there it might be objected, that what is sinful in all ought not to have been condemned or forbidden in bishops alone. The answer is easy. When it is expressly prohibited to bishops, it does not therefore follow that it is freely allowed to others. Beyond all doubt, Paul condemned universally what was contrary to an unrepealed law of God (Gen.2:24)". - John Calvin

Survey4/10/08 3:31 PM
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Adelphos wrote:
1. Actually, the context proves my point. Creation story has the following points. God commanded Adam and Eve to eat only vegetables, work in a garden, and not be single. Yet, we know that this is not the whole truth. One verse NEVER makes the whole truth. If you think it does, then you should take a course in hermeneutics.
. . .
3. Polygny is never taught as sin -
1. If Adam and Eve were commanded to eat only vegetables prior to the fall, then they complied. Otherwise, they would have sinned, and that is not recorded. If they labored, it was done after the fall as a consequence of the fall. If Adam took more than one wife (which he did not), it would have been after the fall because it is not recorded that he had more than one even after the fall. Because the sons of Adam AFTER THE FALL, in sin took more than one wife, this does not constitute a repeal of the law written in Gen. 2:24.
2. Expected.

3. In the beginning, God said they two shall be one flesh (1 Cor. 6:16). The Apostle Paul by the Holy Spirit uses this verse from Gen. 2:24 as an argument against unrighteousness. Now, how can this be a legitimate argument if the law has been repealed? I believe this constitutes using more than one verse to support my point.


Survey4/10/08 3:05 PM
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Adelphos wrote:
1. You have not proven what I am teaching is a damnable heresy.
2. I do not deny the Lord. This is blatantly false.
3. You have not proven that any truth is distorted. You have merely proven you disagree. Hermeneutically, very weak!
4. I have no sexual fantasies with young girls, nor do I advocate such.
Therefore, this practice of unproven condemnation is based upon pre-suppositional bias.
Your exegetical analysis of Gen 2:24 is full of holes
1. You failed to demonstrate that Gen. 2:24 has been repealed. Therefore, your doctrine of polygamy is false and heretical.

2. To distort the truth from point one is to deny the Lord who is the truth.

3. See pts. 1 and 2 Only hermeneutically weak to the polygamist who can not repent of his sin.

4. Yeh, right!

5. No presuppositional bias except in the mind of the infidel who tries to justify himself.

Again in closing, you have not proven with scripture that Gen. 2:24 has been repealed. Now, let's talk about hermeneutics.

". . . for two (not many) shall be one flesh". 1 Cor. 6:16


Survey4/10/08 2:45 PM
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Adelphos wrote:
1. So, what Biblical definition of False Prophet are you using? This should be interesting!
2. You condemned OTP before you know the facts. The "heresy" of the Mormon church concerning polygyny is totally different view than what Christian polygynists hold.
3. Your point three may be in the area of "bearing false witness" again.
4. I don't mind if my doctrine is corrected. However, what you have presented is hermeneutically unsound.
Blessings!
I. False Prophets according to 2 Pet. 2:1-3:
a) bring in damnable heresies
b) deny the Lord
c) their ways are "pernicious" (destructive) by distorting the truth and provide false grounds for unchaste behavior.
d) Covetousness (which covers a broad range including sexual fantasies with young girls) is the driving force of their feigned words.

2. Your justification for polygamy may be different than the Mormons, but it is polygamy none the less. The law of Gen. 2:24 has not been repealed.

3. It is not false witness since your own defense of polygamy condemns you as an infidel by your own mouth as a witness. Your defense of other polygamists who are guilty of pedophilia makes you a partaker of their sins.

4. You have not proven your point, and therefore, this is ad homenim.


Survey4/10/08 2:21 PM
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[Removed by SermonAudio.com]

Survey4/10/08 2:03 PM
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Adelphos wrote:
Dr. Phil
Yes, all Scripture is profitable for doctrine. So, tell me, how does one interpret narratives, compare narratives, embrace hermeneutical analysis to include principles regarding necessary inference, didactics, with principles of full revelational truth (no doctrine is ever based on a single passage), in order to ensure that Scripture interpreting Scripture. Basically, no theologian in their right mind would make a doctrine out of a single doctrine. Doctrines are made by compiling everything that is said about the particular topic, examining each passage for similarities and differences, blending them as grammar and hermeneutics allow, so that all inconsistancies are resolved, resulting in a exhaustive understanding of the particular doctrine.If there are passages that seem to contradict other passages, you don't pick the passages you agree with.
Fallacy of Euphemism
Christ used a single verse in his apologetics with the Pharisees to defend his claim of being the Son of God:Matt. 22:45. He drew a logical conclusion that could not be refuted by them based upon only Psalm 110:1. We may comb the scriptures throughout to find examples of the behavior of the saints but they do not provide the ground for the repeal of Gen. 2:24.

Survey4/10/08 1:33 PM
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Adelphos wrote:
Dr. Phil.
1. It is a fallacy of logic to use one part of the creation story to present a full doctrine of any subject. For you to be consistent with your own usage of the Genesis 2:24 passage, you would need to claim that being single is sin. Eating meat is sin. Working outside of farming is sin. All of the above items are further explained throughout the Bible.
2. 1 Tim 3:2 has more than one option in the Greek - whether you like that or not - it is a fact!
3. Abraham, Jacob, Caleb, and David were not "unchaste" infidels! Sorry! Scripture again disagrees with you.
Did you your self not say that "All scripture is given by inspiration, and is profitable for doctrine . . ."? Is not the account of the creation scripture, and therefore is it not a logical argument to conclude that it is "profitable for doctrine".

Like the Mormon in Utah, your arguments are red herrings. They are a digression to avoid the real issue: Gen. 2:24 (which precedes the sinful behavior of the Fathers) has not been repealed. And yes, the OT Fathers were sinners and they were saved by grace through faith for there is no other name under heaven given among men whereby we must be saved. There is no scripture to provide grounds for imitation of their sins.


Survey4/10/08 1:10 PM
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Old Time Polygamist wrote:
Polygamy can offer protection for the women. Unlike monogamous marriages where men can beat their women unchecked; polygamous marriages provide the woman protection with the supervision of other adult women.
Polygamy also allows women to take a break. A wife can take a break from watching the children and let the other women do it. A great benefit for the child who still has family care, and a great benefit for whose families live in remote areas far from nurseries.
I would recommend polygamy for anyone interested. Its good for you, society, and the women!!
1Ch 4:5 And Ashur the father of Tekoa had two wives, Helah and Naarah.
OTP,

Your arguments are fallacious. They beg the question of what are the real issues aside from these Red Herrings that you employ. The question is "Is Polygamy lawful?" Has the law of Gen. 2:24 been repealed? Did God in the beginning give Adam more than one wife? The sinful behavior of the Fathers does not constitute a repeal of the law, nor does the two wives of Tekoa provide grounds for imitation. Furthermore, it does not repeal 1 Tim. 3:2

On the other hand, the polygamist is an unchaste infidel, a pedophile, an adulterer using religion to deceive. Your secret underwear has holes.


Survey4/10/08 12:06 PM
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"The husband of one wife." 1 Tim. 3:2

"The only true exposition is . . that in a bishop he expressly condemns polygamy, which at that time the Jews almost reckoned to be lawful. This corruption was borrowed by them partly from sinful imitation of the Fathers, (for they who read that Abraham, Jacob, David, and others of the same class, were married to more wives than one at the same time, thought that it was lawful for them also to do the same) and partly from neighboring nations; for the inhabitants of the East never observed that conscientiousness and fidelity in marriage which was proper. However that might be, polygamy was exceedingly prevalent among them; and therefore with great propriety does Paul enjoin that a bishop should be free from this stain.
. . .Paul forbids polygamy in all who hold the office of a bishop, because it is a mark of an unchaste man, and of one who does not observe conjugal fidelity.
But there it might be objected, that what is sinful in all ought not to have been condemned or forbidden in bishops alone. The answer is easy. When it is expressly prohibited to bishops, it does not therefore follow that it is freely allowed to others. Beyond all doubt, Paul condemned universally what was contrary to an unrepealed law of God (Gen.2:24)". - John Calvin


Survey4/10/08 11:26 AM
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Adelphos,

"What think ye of Christ, whose son is he? Luke 22:42

Also,

1. What do you mean by "I do not teach that works secure our salvation"? Who said anything about "securing salvation"? We are talking about "acquiring salvation" in soteriology.

2. What do you mean by "embraces the provision of our justification"? Where does the Bible teach "Embrace the provision of our justification", and thou shalt be saved?

3. When did Paul say that "there wasn't any New Testament"?

You see, your language comes close to the truth, but your Pharisee clothes are showing. It shows your faulty soteriology and your wrong interpretation of scripture as a whole. If you can't get the doctrine of justification by faith alone right, it affects all your other views of scripture including polygamy.

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