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USER COMMENTS BY MR. DISPY |
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Page 1 | Page 5 · Found: 122 user comments posted recently. |
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6/29/09 12:12 PM |
Mr. Dispy | | | |
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Timothy wrote: People seem to be jumping to the conclusion that the PCA is "clearly" straying from the authority of God's Word in such a close vote. I would gently caution readers here to look into the matter before passing jugdement so quickly on fellow brothers. The fact that you have godly men on both sides of this issue (Tim Keller, Ligon Duncan, Phil Ryken, Bryan Chapell, etc.) shows that charity toward one another is called for. This is not a debate about women in authority over men; the PCA is decidedly compementarian, without question. A bigger problem may be that of denominationalism, and particularly of [URL=http://www.stempublishing.com/authors/kelly/7subjcts/presbytr.html]]]Presbyterianism[/URL]'s method of deciding disputed issues. |
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6/26/09 5:17 PM |
Mr. Dispy | | | |
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God's Continuous Covenant wrote: The problem Dispy is in your dismissal of the Covenant which God has made with ALL the Elect... Your premill disp stuff chops the Bible up and rejects God's election in the OT. BUT it has been going on throughout the OT and continues today.Rom 9+11 Rejects the Break up of the elect at any point 1. I do not reject election, or dismiss any covenant God has made.2. God has made more than one covenant. For example, the covenant with Abraham is different than the covenant with David. There are different covenants with different groups of people, because God chose to deal with different groups of people in different ways. 3. I am still waiting for you or another covenanter to provide a reference to God's people in the OT being "in Him" or "in Christ Jesus." Of course, it will be a long wait, since it is not there. Saying that Hebrew could not express such a concept, or that the Israelites were too dumb to understand it, is not an argument. Obviously, the Jewish writers of the NT were able to understand. It is impossible to expect any reasonable response from you to the problem with your theory raised by the portion in Ephesians 3. 4. Rom 9+11 highlights the difference between Jew and Gentile. |
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6/26/09 4:03 PM |
Mr. Dispy | | | |
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Dis am de post 2 wrote: God in Scripture is addressing ***ALL*** the Elect. Here's Paul addressing the Old Testament Israelites in the Minor Changes Testament:"Paul, an apostle of Jesus Christ by the will of God, to the saints which are at Ephesus, and to the faithful in Christ Jesus" When were the OT elect were ever mentioned to be in Ephesus? DJC49 has failed to answer where the OT says anyone is 'in Christ Jesus' - maybe you can do better. And I suppose it would have been too confusing to the Israelites to discover they were actually Gentiles, as Paul notes in Ephesians 3: "Wherefore remember, that ye being in time past Gentiles in the flesh, who are called Uncircumcision by that which is called the Circumcision in the flesh made by hands; That at that time ye were without Christ, being aliens from the commonwealth of Israel, and strangers from the covenants of promise, having no hope, and without God in the world: But now in Christ Jesus ye who sometimes were far off are made nigh by the blood of Christ." Maybe the Hebrew was inadequate to express such concepts as "Uncircumcision." By the way, does your posting name indicate the partiality of the unregenerate, or that of the immature believer? |
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6/26/09 10:13 AM |
Mr. Dispy | | | |
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fuzzy logic wrote: This is ONLY A SATIRICAL RUMOR... ...They do NOT know which side will win. Government submitting Romans 13 DARBYIST, or actual JEWS who have special DNA.... I guess my Bible is missing that chapter where, after Jesus' ascension, Peter took up the sword again and Paul got busy organizing political pressure groups to change the policies of imperial Rome... |
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6/26/09 9:16 AM |
Mr. Dispy | | | |
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DJC49 wrote: That sort of NT language ("in Him") is not used in the OT. God's righteous ones, people, sons, remnant, saints, chosen, and etc., are some of the Hebraic words and terminology used to denote God's elect -- those who were saved -- in the OT. And why do you suppose the Holy Spirit used different terminology in the NT as opposed to the OT? Could it be because this was a new testament (i.e., a new covenant) in His blood? Is it possible that He chose to deal with people in a new way - by grace through faith in Christ - a way that He had not ever employed before that time? |
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6/25/09 9:53 AM |
Mr. Dispy | | | |
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Agnes wrote: I cannot believe that God will throw sinners in hell and say to them on judgement day(with all due reverence)"Even though I love you, I have to torture you through all eternity and separate you from my goodness forever". We sadly have a one-sided view of God. No, we sadly have too low a view of the holiness of God, and we have too high a view of man, when we think that we deserve more than eternal hell. When man receives anything better than hell, it is a demonstration of God's grace and mercy.If you don't believe it, Agnes, you might want to examine yourself, or you may end up surprised that your sin is enough to send you to the same place as mass murderers like Hitler, Stalin, Pol Pot; Romans emperors like Nero, Commodius, Marcus Aurelius; pagan philosophers like Cicero, Plato, Aristotle, Socrates; common unrepentant sinners like adulterers, murderers, rapists, homosexuals, thieves, drunkards; and even 'good' people like pious popes and nice ladies from Kentucky. I cannot believe that God will NOT throw such sinners in hell. He's holy. |
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6/23/09 12:32 PM |
Mr. Dispy | | | |
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DJC49 wrote: 1. We're under no obligation to do so, but we should be of the same mindset as Paul especially when it comes to the Gospel. 2. I believe imprecatory prayer is especially suited against false gospels, but there are other special applications. So now after all this discussion, to bring it back to the example in the article of this pastor praying for the president's death, my question is, how do we reconcile the idea of imprecatory prayer (for which we have these four possible examples in the NT) with other NT commands - not examples, but direct commands - such as:"I exhort therefore, that, first of all, supplications, prayers, intercessions, and giving of thanks, be made for all men; For kings, and for all that are in authority; that we may lead a quiet and peaceable life in all godliness and honesty. For this is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Saviour; Who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth." (1 Tim. 2.1-4) or "Let every soul be subject unto the higher powers. For there is no power but of God: the powers that be are ordained of God. Whosoever therefore resisteth the power, resisteth the ordinance of God: and they that resist shall receive to themselves damnation." (Romans 13) |
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6/22/09 1:08 PM |
Mr. Dispy | | | |
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DJC49 wrote: Gal 1:8&9 -- "let him be accursed" In the Greek it is simply: "anathema esto" esto (the verb "be") is in the 3rd person Present tense, Active voice, Imperative mood, singular. OK, I'm with you so far, and as to the meaning of anathema, I can accept those definitions.The questions remaining in my mind are(leaving aside the other three passages from the NT for now, so just Galatians): 1. Because Paul curses those who preach another gospel which is not another (i.e., a false gospel that puts men back under the law), does that mean we are to do the same? 2. Is this curse reserved for false teachers, or is it for all the enemies of God? 3. If the answers to 1 & 2 are 'yes,' does that mean we can then appropriate curses from the OT that, in context, were national Israel cursing their Gentile enemies, for curses today by Gentile and Jewish believers against Gentile and Jewish unbelievers? |
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6/22/09 10:41 AM |
Mr. Dispy | | | |
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DJC49 wrote: Definition of: "Anathema" From "[URL=http://www.biblestudytools.com/Lexicons/Greek/grk.cgi?number=331&version=kjv]]]The KJV New Testament Greek Lexicon[/URL]" A thing set up or laid by in order to be kept -- specifically, an offering resulting from a vow, which after being consecrated to a god was hung upon the walls or columns of the temple, or put in some other conspicuous place A thing devoted to God WITHOUT HOPE of being redeemed, and if an animal, to be slain; therefore a person or thing DOOMED to destruction A curse A man accursed, devoted to the direst of woes For some reason, this definition didn't appear on my browser, so reposting in reply in case it benefits others.Quite a back and forth here over the week end! I think you two are on the right track, but I would also ask that you (for the benefit of those of us watching the tennis match) consider what Paul meant when he said, "Let him be" - what tense and voice is that verb, "let be"? |
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6/19/09 7:12 PM |
Mr. Dispy | | | |
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DJC49 wrote: Please don't lose any sleep over what I am about to tell you, but, even my imprecatory prayers (if I were to enter into any) would be a PART of the dynamic complex of MEANS which God uses to accomplish the salvation of His elect! Sorry, but I don't have a schematic on how exactly God saves His own. (And I KNOW how much you pre-trib/pre-mill Dispies absolutely LOVE [URL=http://www.yeshuaagapao.com/images/blog/Bible_Chart_-_Ages_And_Dispensation.png]]]charts and diagrams[/URL]!) _____ BTW, ALL Calvinists are "5-pointers." ALL the petals of the TULIP are necessary with Christ at the center. Denying any one of the 5 points makes one something other than a Calvinist -- some sort of hybrid -- some sort of mutation. Oh, I sha'n't lose any sleep over this. I have long ago stopped trying to explicate just how God accomplishes his will. When I consider how he saved me, it boggles my mind. How could I ever know exactly what he might do with one of my prayers, unless he tells me himself?Thanks for the chart, by the way. It's not as colorful as others I've seen, but is quite clear. It is remarkable what others cannot see sometimes. --- And as noted, I have removed myself from the Calvinist debate, since it edifieth not. |
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