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USER COMMENTS BY “ ML ”
Page 1 | Page 5 ·  Found: 169 user comments posted recently.
Survey6/8/08 5:27 PM
ml  Find all comments by ml
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JD wrote:
you deny it by saying God says Christ died for some of all men and all of some men, that he died for a few men and that he died for few men when God has nowhere said that
Do the verses below say Christ died for every man, everyone etc.?

… I lay down my life for the sheep.
(Joh 10:15)

… JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins.
(Mat 1:21)

… even as Christ also loved the church, and gave himself for it; (Eph 5:25)

He shall see of the travail of his soul, and shall be satisfied: by his knowledge shall my righteous servant justify many; for he shall bear their iniquities.
(Isa 53:11)

… and he bare the sin of many, and made intercession for the transgressors.
(Isa 53:12)

So Christ was once offered to bear the sins of many…
(Heb 9:28)

As thou hast given him power over all flesh, that he should give eternal life to as many as thou hast given him.
(Joh 17:2)

Even as the Son of man came not to be ministered unto, but to minister, and to give his life a ransom for many.
(Mat 20:28)

For this is my blood of the new testament, which is shed for many for the remission of sins.
(Mat 26:28)

Greater love hath no man than this, that a man lay down his life for his friends.
(Joh 15:13)


Survey6/3/08 4:29 PM
ml  Find all comments by ml
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rogerant wrote:
I am not trying to say that Arminius was "Reformed".
I must have misunderstood you, I thought you were saying Arminius was in the reformed camp because he believed in total depravity, substitutionary atonement, imputed righteousness, was covenental and held to reformed eschatology.
I am sorry about that.

Survey6/3/08 3:55 PM
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rogerant wrote:
He shared with the "Reformers" total depravity, substitutionary atonement, imputed righteousness,
Arminius did believe in total depravity but he also believed that God's prevenient grace restored to humanity the freedom of the will, total depravity has no meaning then because man was restored with his free will.

This is not reform teaching.

Arminius said he believed in substitutionary atonement but by saying Christ died for all men he did not believe this.

This is not reform teaching

Arminius said he believed in imputed righteousness but what he believed was that "faith, and faith only, is imputed for righteousness. By this alone are we justified before God, absolved from our sins, and are accounted, pronounced and declared RIGHTEOUS by God…"

“Arminius did not object to saying, "the righteousness of Christ is imputed to us," but he did object to saying that "the righteousness of Christ is imputed to us for righteousness." He wanted to avoid saying that Christ's righteousness is a cloak over our unrighteousness. He believed that in the imputation of Christ's righteousness we are partakers in Christ.”

This is not reform teaching


Survey6/3/08 1:49 PM
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rogerant wrote:
There is a slight distinction between the Reformed Arminian view and the Wesleyan Arminian view in respect to Wesley's view of Wesleyan Perfection in sanctification.
If the only distinction between reformed arminian (arminius) and the Wesleyan arminian is perfection in sanctification then are they in agreement with each other on the points below and if so how is this reformed?

"Deprivation - Human beings are sinful and without God, incapable (deprived) on their own of being righteous; however, they are not irredeemably sinful and can be transformed by God’s grace; God's prevenient grace restores to humanity the freedom of will.

Conditional Election - God has chosen that all humanity be righteous by His grace, yet has called us to respond to that grace by exercising our God-restored human freedom as a condition of fulfilling election.

Unlimited Atonement - The effects of the Atonement are freely available to all those whom He has chosen, which includes all humanity, "whosoever will."

Resistible Grace - God’s grace is free and offered without merit; however, human beings have been granted freedom by God and can refuse His grace."


Survey6/3/08 11:31 AM
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rogerant wrote:
They are Reformed Arminian (Wesleyan),
What is a reformed arminian wesleyan and why are they reformed?

Survey6/1/08 6:14 PM
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Mike wrote:
Notice the progression. First chicken, then egg.
And the LORD said unto Moses, When thou goest to return into Egypt, see that thou do all those wonders before Pharaoh, which I have put in thine hand: but I will harden his heart, that he shall not let the people go.
(Exo 4:21)

Survey5/11/08 8:38 PM
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The Papacy is the Anti-Christ

In 1590, Ribera published a commentary on the Revelation as a counter-interpretation to the prevailing view among Protestants which identified the Papacy with the Antichrist. Ribera applied all of Revelation but the earliest chapters, to the end of time rather than to the history of the Church. Antichrist would be a single evil person who would be received by the Jews and would rebuild Jerusalem…Ribera denied the Protestant Scriptural Antichrist (see 2 Thessalonians 2) as seated in the church of God…He set on an infidel Antichrist, outside the church of God…The result of [Ribera's] work was a twisting and maligning of prophetic truth …Jesuit scholar, Cardinal Robert Bellarmine (1542-1621) followed Francisco Ribera. Through the work of these two tricky Jesuit scholars, a brand new baby was born named "Jesuit Futurism." In fact, Francisco Ribera has been called the Father of Futurism.

http://www.geocities.com/biblerevelations_org/rapture/jesuit_futurism.htm


Survey5/11/08 7:07 PM
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History lessons from The Trail of Blood by J. M. Carroll.

Ha


Survey4/4/08 12:02 PM
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Michael Hranek wrote:
Dr. Phil
Sola Scriptura
Interesting exchange.
Allow me to ask, 'If God hardened Pharoah's heart (wasn't this AFTER Pharoah had first hardened his own heart against God?)
And the LORD said unto Moses, When thou goest to return into Egypt, see that thou do all those wonders before Pharaoh, which I have put in thine hand: but I WILL HARDEN HIS HEART, that he shall not let the people go.
(Exo 4:21)

News Item1/22/08 3:43 PM
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Weapon of Mass Instruction wrote:
An indonesian girl accepted the Lord as Savior last night. I told her that she must see herself as a sinner deserving hell. I also told her that God loved her. She bowed her head and asked the Lord to forgive her of her sins and to save her.
Did you also tell her that she must repent or perish?

Luk 13:5


News Item1/22/08 11:08 AM
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Michael wrote "Esau since you mentioned him....despised his birthright. I would call that a very serious rejection of God and the fact that God hated him certainly ties to the fact that God who loved him as a descendant of Abraham His friend was quite justified to hate Esau in his rejection of God's love in his life."

(For the children being not yet born, ***neither having done any good or evil,*** that the purpose of God according to election might stand, not of works, but of him that calleth) It was said unto her, The elder shall serve the younger. As it is written, Jacob have I loved, but Esau have I hated.
(Rom 9:11-13)

Andrew wrote "Why would God STRIVE with people throughout the ages with His prophets of old if he had already predestinated them to Hell"

Did God "strive" with all the nations round about Israel?


Survey1/8/08 7:17 AM
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Walt wrote:
... He did not have any of Owen’s works except from volume 6 of the Epistle to the Hebrews, which is a tragedy. Owen takes great care in explaining Covenant Theology in his Works. ...
Actually, Walt, have you ever read Owen on the covenants? His largest treatment of the same is that contained in his Hebrews commentary, so I do not understand the silly criticism that no other work of Owen's is cited.

And besides all this, Owen has a classic treatment which destroys the Preby view of the covenants .. For example he does not view Sinai as a dispensation of the Covenant of grace, he views it as a purely legal covenant!! The linkage that the Presbys try to make between the Old and New covenants is completely destroyed by Owen!!

How then, you may ask, does Owen retain the baptism of infants? Well, interesting question and you would have to read Owen for yourself to determine that!

BTW- what's the use of quoting Preby and Lutheran confessions of faith to establish the teaching on infant baptism?! We could equally well quote Baptist confessions to teach the contrary!! Save your typing finger for something better!


Survey1/8/08 5:19 AM
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Reposting:

Walt wrote:

"....2) Baptism is a sign and seal that signifies the outward administration of the Covenant of Grace. The two kinds of people to receive baptism are the elect (as in #1 above) and infants (but only through one or both covenanted and Christian Parents). We believe infants and small children are to be covenanted into the Visible Church, but there is no regeneration that takes place. Like circumcision of infants, they were part of visible chosen people of God, but circumcision was not a guarantee of regeneration or salvation."

So what is the point of this rite? And when you say the "chosen people of God", chosen in what sense? You then say they must be the children of one or both covenanted Christian parents.. where do you get this from in the scriptures? And please show each element viz. that they have to have covenanted and that they must be Christian.

Following on from that, would you then say that only the children of such parents who die in infancy are elected because they are covenant children?

Walt, still waiting for your answers!


Survey1/7/08 5:46 PM
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Walt wrote:
....2) Baptism is a sign and seal that signifies the outward administration of the Covenant of Grace. The two kinds of people to receive baptism are the elect (as in #1 above) and infants (but only through one or both covenanted and Christian Parents). We believe infants and small children are to be covenanted into the Visible Church, but there is no regeneration that takes place. Like circumcision of infants, they were part of visible chosen people of God, but circumcision was not a guarantee of regeneration or salvation.
So what is the point of this rite? And when you say the "chosen people of God", chosen in what sense? You then say they must be the children of one or both covenanted Christian parents.. where do you get this from in the scriptures? And please show each element viz. that they have to have covenanted and that they must be Christian.

Following on from that, would you then say that only the children of such parents who die in infancy are elected because they are covenant children?

Got to go. Will look in tomorrow.


Survey1/7/08 4:56 PM
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Walt wrote:
...When I said that anyone who uses historical testimony to interpret Scripture is plain ignorant on how to interpret Scripture, it is consistent with what we agreed on above.
Walt there was no such qualification in your original post. Check it out.

Walt wrote:
...you reject my views that those who have been called by God to interpret Scripture are faithful courts. In Presbyterianism, this is defined as the Session, Presbytery, Synod and General Assembly....
Walt you are rather good at going on the offensive on the basis of someones church affiliation, if they do not happen to agree with your presbyterianiam. It seems to bring out the worse in you.

So let me say as gently as I am able that irrespective of church affiliation I would insist on seeing your scriptural justification for such a notion. And are you really saying that such sessions are somehow inspired to arrive at the right conclusion? Even your assertion that they must first agree to the WCF must cause raised eyebrows, because this would mean that they have to start with certain presuppositions, and are all such sessions agreed as to what the WCF teaches? Do they even all teach the same on various issues? No divisions in your camp?!!


Survey1/7/08 10:53 AM
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Walt wrote:
...You won't find a Presbyterian rejecting historical testimony as a subordinate standard, as we use them all the time as an aide and help to understanding.
Then why did you say:
"...anyone who is using...historical testimony, to interpret Scripture are plain ignorant on how to interpret Scripture"?!

Walt wrote:
..RK made a good point and I would hold to this point as well, even if it gets you three guys (ML, Uh..Oh & MurrayA) all upset over this issue at hand.
Walt, you wrote: "..You won't find a Presbyterian rejecting historical testimony as a subordinate standard"

So what is the difference between archealogical evidence which has to be interpreted, and histroical evidence which is also open to interpretation!!

You and RK are asking for special pleading for arguments that you both find acceptable.


Survey1/7/08 8:23 AM
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Walt

You do talk such drivel! You say you have read the article and agree with it, but then press for exactly the thing that is condemned by it!

Walt wrote:
....I know there is a lot of money with these new and improved manuscripts, and that all these Jewish traditions are helpful to get yourselves on track, but nothing is more preferred than using Scripture with Scripture.
And who is talking about manuscripts? You are the one who threw that one in as a sideline and are now trying to sidetrack the debate!

The issue is about authority and how are we to understand the question of authority when it comes to the Bible?

Neither I, nor to my knowledge, Murray would deny that scripture must be interpreted with scripture. What you seem to suggest is that we must take account of no other knowledge in interpreting scripture, which is plain rubbish! And if what you say is correct then we could take it to its extreme and even argue the most ridiculous viz. that no one should study new testament greek or old testament hebrew to interpret scripture!!

Walt wrote:
....anyone who is using ....historical testimony, to interpret Scripture are plain ignorant on how to interpret Scripture..
You do it all the time silly!

Survey1/7/08 6:25 AM
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Walt wrote:
MurrayA wrote:
"Investigation of the Jewish background to the NT, and the Gospels in particular is a necessary part of the process of interpretation."
Hmmm, interesting. This is a Roman Catholic argument to the interpretation of Scripture. ....
No it is not Walt!

What you are advocating is what JD does all the time and that is called "SOLO Scriptura", not "Sola Scriptura"!

There is a vast difference between these!

If you want to learn more, read:

[URL=http://www.the-highway.com/Sola_Scriptura_Mathison.html]]]Critique of Solo Scriptura[/URL]

You are also inconsistent in this, because you will allow church history to inform doctrinal discussions, why not archeological findings etc.?!

Often the most simple logic seems to escape people. In baptism we are talking of something done with the subject. IOW if you are an immersionist then you take the subject and you plunge it in water. If you are a sprinkler then strictly you should reduce the subject to small particles in order to be able to spinkle into the water. I don't think any believer will take kindly to that!


Survey1/7/08 5:33 AM
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Weapon of Mass Instruction wrote:
I do not think that is a point of disagreement with us. For if I had the room, I can systematically take you from Genesis to Revelation and demonstrate to you with simple declarative statements how God desires all men to be saved.....
OK, let's take up your challenge.

I would love to see your simple declarative statements from the Old Testament that God wants every single individual ever born to be saved . Just a few uncontroversial texts please.

Now remember the texts must show "every single individual ever to exist", which presumably includes Judas Iscariot!


News Item12/31/07 2:04 PM
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Michael wrote

"so believing everything is predestinated they never see their neeed to repent"

I believe in predestination and saw my need to repent, which by the grace of God I did and continue to do.

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