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USER COMMENTS BY JAMES THOMAS |
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Page 1 | Page 20 · Found: 500 user comments posted recently. |
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4/26/2020 11:41 AM |
James Thomas | | Fla | | | |
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Mike wrote: That's quite true. Yet a perfect book would not declare that money is the root of all evil. It isn't. The greenback in you pocket isn't evil in and of itself. Your right. Luke 16 13 No servant can serve two masters: for either he will hate the one, and love the other; or else he will hold to the one, and despise the other. Ye cannot serve God and mammon. 14 And the Pharisees also, who were covetous, heard all these things: and they derided him. 15 And he said unto them, **Ye are they which justify yourselves before men; but God knoweth your hearts: for that which is highly esteemed among men is abomination in the sight of God**. There is the given definition of that money aka mammon being spoken of in Luke 16 as well as 1 Timothy 6. The Pharisees and their ilk didn't serve God but did serve their own works of the law aka self righteousness and were the coveters which Paul was referring to when he wrote this. 1 Tim 6:10 For the love of money is the root of all evil: which while some coveted after, they have erred from the faith, and pierced themselves through with many sorrows. That which Paul once coveted, he now called dung. (Phil. 3:8) |
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4/23/2020 5:21 AM |
James Thomas | | Fla | | | |
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John UK wrote: St James, you ask: "how would you explain to someone that Sodom, Egypt, and the great city as all being places where our Lord was crucified?" I don't know how I would explain to someone that Sodom, Egypt, and the great city as all being places where our Lord was crucified? How would YOU do it? Hey John, time is short for me and this question will be to involved to discuss. Perhaps another time. |
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4/21/2020 7:17 AM |
James Thomas | | Fla | | | |
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John said "The noun is stauro. In the KJV we have 'crucified' and 'cross', and that is what we have been fed with for centuries. But how will you translate these Greek words?"John, There is no problem with the translation of the term, but in order to arrive at the definition God indented we must consider from the context, how the term was used. Per the BLB here is the Outline of Biblical Usage: to stake, drive down stakes to fortify with driven stakes, to palisade to crucify to crucify one *metaph. to crucify the flesh, destroy its power utterly (the nature of the figure implying that the destruction is attended with intense pain)* Now, if you consider a verse I made mention to you earlier, how would you explain to someone that Sodom, Egypt, and the great city as all being places where our Lord was crucified? Rev 11:8 And their dead bodies shall lie in the street of the great city, which spiritually is called Sodom and Egypt, where also our Lord was crucified. |
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4/16/2020 7:01 PM |
James Thomas | | Fla | | | |
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John UK wrote: I would not have considered the ability to refute those who preached salvation by law as a visible sign. But if you regard the signs as "God working with them", confirming his word through the miraculous and visible signs, then that does make sense. cf. John 3:2 Sorry for my delay, but I will wrap it up by saying there are many mentions of pretty much the same through the Scriptures. I will share a few more and let you read the context. The They and their is always referring to the same people group. Isa 3:12 O my people, they which lead thee cause thee to err, and destroy the way of thy paths. That is who Paul is referring to here. Rom 3:13... their tongues they have used deceit; the poison of asps is under their lips: And the OT as well.... Deut 32:17 They sacrificed unto devils, not to God; to gods whom they knew not. These would be the same devils spoken in Mark 16. Deut 32:28 For they are a nation void of counsel, neither is there any understanding in them. Deut 32:33 Their wine is the poison of dragons, and the cruel venom of asps. Blessings to you John. |
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4/13/2020 9:30 PM |
James Thomas | | Fla | | | |
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John, Hopefully I've articulated myself well enough in answering your question of what Jesus meant for a believer take up a serpent. From the prophets, I see that The short answer to your question is the Jews VOICE of doctrines that taught self righteous works of the law (Rom. 10:3) which was nothing but lies spoken in a stammering tongue (Aramaic) and would be "taken up" and proven error by believers now provided with new tongues which they did speak (Greek) of God's Word published and preached. Jer. 46:22 said their VOICE shall go like a serpent. So it would be their VOICE of lies which would be taken up which is likened to a serpent. Remember Matt 13:34 said**without a parable spake he not unto them**: Parable- a comparing, comparison of one thing with another, likeness, similitude. Isa. 9:14 Therefore the LORD will cut off from Israel head and tail, branch and rush, in one day. Isa. 9:15 The ancient and honourable, he is the head; and the prophet that teacheth lies, he is the tail. Rev 9:19 For their power is in their mouth, and in their tails: for their tails were **like unto serpents**, and had heads, and with them they do hurt. Isa. 9:16 For the leaders of this people {Rom 10:3} cause them to err; and they that are led of them are destr |
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4/12/2020 11:24 AM |
James Thomas | | Fla | | | |
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Jer 46:2 Also her hired men are in the midst of her like fatted bullocks; for they also are turned back, and are fled away together: they did not stand, because the day of their calamity was come upon them, and the time of their visitation.Jer 46:22 The voice thereof shall go *like a serpent*; Their voice is the voice of hired men or hirelings (see John 10 for a more clear definition.) and is figuratively described as a serpent. Psalm 58:4 Their poison is like the poison of a serpent: they are like the deaf adder that stoppeth her ear; Verse 1 asks....o ye judge uprightly, O ye sons of men? No they didn't. The instead spoke lies. Rev 9:19 For their power is in their mouth, and in their tails: for their tails were **like unto serpents**, and had heads, and with them they do hurt. Their tails are likened unto serpents. Power in their mouth, not God's Word. Honest question. Why would it be a literal snake in Mark 16 when we have evidence before and after Mark from Scripture defining serpents as being figurative of Pharisees/Saducees and their poison being their teachings which killed souls(see Matt. 23:15-33)? |
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4/11/2020 7:18 PM |
James Thomas | | Fla | | | |
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Interesting thoughts St. John. The more I read through Scripture the more I see the laying of hands as being not a literal action of a physical touch but a literal communication of the gospel which Paul said resided IN Timothy and that due to what? The putting on of his hands. 2 Timothy 1:6 Wherefore I put thee in remembrance that thou stir up the gift of God, which is in thee by the putting on of my hands. Rom 10:17 says faith cometh by hearing, and hearing by the word of God. Fyi, I really had no notion one way or the other concerning Mark 16 when we started, I just never had taken time to look into it. I'm still not settled on it but the evidence seems to lead to a figurative understanding on "laying of hands". Need to look more into it though. Thanks for the intriguing topic suggestion. Blessings to you John |
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4/11/2020 4:43 PM |
James Thomas | | Fla | | | |
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John UK wrote: Peter said he had no money; however he gave him something even better - complete healing. The thing is through...Peter said it wasn't his own power. as though by our own power or holiness we had made this man to walk? But does describe the source here in this verse which speaks beyond a physical healing. Verse 16 And his name through faith in his name hath made this man strong, whom ye see and know: yea, the faith which is by him hath given him this perfect soundness in the presence of you all. So if we circle back to Mark 16, we agreed that the verses grammatically cause so many problems of interpretation because it points to those that believe. Seems to me that's due to a misunderstanding of what the act of laying of hands means. I'd agree with Docs and QC's thoughts if that was strictly to be understood in a literal sense but there's just too much figurative language elsewhere that paints a different picture. Here's yet another example... 2 Timothy 1:6 Wherefore I put thee in remembrance that thou stir up the gift of God, which is in thee by the putting on of my hands. Paul said the gift of God was in Timothy by the putting on of Paul's hands. Preached the Gospel or a magic touch? |
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4/11/2020 11:08 AM |
James Thomas | | | |
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I don't discount the physical but lets not ignore the rest of the text and its focus on this man. Acts 3:12 And when Peter saw it, he answered unto the people, Ye men of Israel, why marvel ye at this? or why look ye so earnestly on us, as though by our own power or holiness we had made this man to walk? 13 The God of Abraham, and of Isaac, and of Jacob, the God of our fathers, hath glorified his Son Jesus; whom ye delivered up, and denied him in the presence of Pilate, when he was determined to let him go. 14But ye denied the Holy One and the Just, and desired a murderer to be granted unto you; 15And killed the Prince of life, whom God hath raised from the dead; whereof we are witnesses. 16And his name through faith in his name hath made this man strong, whom ye see and know: yea, the faith which is by him hath given him this perfect soundness in the presence of you all. I think most believe Peter was talking about himself but that's not true. He was talking about the same man in Acts 3:6. What healed him? What made him strong? |
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4/11/2020 8:17 AM |
James Thomas | | Fla | | | |
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No worries John. This is a tough topic. Something else to consider. In Acts 8 we see what is the result of laying hands. 15 Who, when they were come down, prayed for them, that they might receive the Holy Ghost: 16 (For as yet he was fallen upon none of them: only they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.) 17 Then laid they their hands on them, and they received the Holy Ghost. How does one receive the Holy Ghost? Rom 10:17 right? Not A Physical touch but preaching of the gospel? |
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4/10/2020 5:50 PM |
James Thomas | | Fla | | | |
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John UK wrote: St James, you have put into words that which grammatically the text appears to be saying. And it is this that causes so many problems of interpretation. Many people discount that interpretation because of a lack of evidence today. Is that valid? I really don't think so. I understand the difficulty and how easily we can chalk it up to something that only went on then and not now if we stick to the thought that it pertains to for example someone ill in the hospital from a physical pain. While I believe in the power of prayer and miracles, I think anyone who claims to be a "faith healer" is a fake. So now what. Why not consider the thought that the sickness spoken of in Mark 16 could be one in the same as spoken here in Luke 5. 31 And Jesus answering said unto them, They that are whole need not a physician; but they that are sick. 32 I came not to call the righteous, but sinners to repentance. The poison from the Pharisees/Sadducees was what made people 'sick' and in need of The Physician right? Make sense to you? |
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4/10/2020 6:10 AM |
James Thomas | | Fla | | | |
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I guess I see it a bit different. Seems to me that once they heard the gospel they became a new creature after being once subjected to vanity (Rom 8:20). The apostles were to preach the gospel to them. Evidence of a new creature is given not as one being a snake wrangler but one who heard and believed the gospel which dispelled the lies being preached by the likes of certain men of James(Gal. 2) who continued to bewitch believers with lies. I'll use some brackets to illustrate. And he said unto them[apostles], Go ye into all the world and preach the gospel to every creature He[every creature] that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he[every creature] that believeth not shall be damned. And these signs shall follow them[every creature] that believe; In my name shall they[every creature] cast out devils; they shall speak with new tongues; Does that make sense to you John or QC? |
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