Today were going to continue talking about how women were treated as slaves. Last week we discussed how the woman who was a captive of war was often allowed to marry and have kids. To slave women this was a wonderful thing. Every woman wants the opportunity to have children. Having a family also gave the women an extra level of security she may have not had before. Should her husband die, she still had here kids to help her.
Last week we examined Exodus 21:7-11
“And if a man sell his daughter to be a maidservant, she shall not go out as the menservants do. (8) If she please not her master, who hath betrothed her to himself, then shall he let her be redeemed: to sell her unto a strange nation he shall have no power, seeing he hath dealt deceitfully with her. (9) And if he have betrothed her unto his son, he shall deal with her after the manner of daughters. (10) If he take him another wife; her food, her raiment, and her duty of marriage, shall he not diminish. (11) And if he do not these three unto her, then shall she go out free without money.”
Why does the Bible seem to condone polygamy in verse 10?
It's clear from the scriptures that God's ideal marriage is one man and one woman. Why would God allow for a less than ideal situation? The Bible does not specifically address why polygamy is allowed in Old Testament times. We do know that it was significantly harder for women to support themselves in ancient times, than men. Women had a much better chance at survival if they got married and had children. To make matters worse, there was a much higher percentage of women than men. Reasons for this include:
1. A higher probability that a newborn child |
