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“ Good and useful comments ”
The exception clause is not existent when observing the two different words used in the passage in question.
"Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marries her which is put away doth commit adultery." Matthew 19:9 or/and 5:32
The word ‘fornication” –porneia in Greek-, refers to any sin of indecency/immorality/promiscui ty or sexual uncleanness outside the marriage bond as in the case of Joseph, which permitted him to lawfully break the engagement with Mary who is said to be his 'wife', not his girl-friend, when they had not yet come together. So one could put away ‘his wife’ in the betrothal period. This is what the clause points out.
Yet after divorce and remarriage the person is not guilty of fornication, but of 'adultery’ –moichao in Greek- This is the word signifying unlawful intercourse by married people outside their marriage bond.
Fornication and adultery should not be confused of interchanged in order to give way to the exception clause. They are mentioned one next to the other as different sins in Gal 5:19
"The works of the flesh are manifest, which are these; Adultery, fornication, uncleanness, lasciviousness...
See http://www.sermonaudio.com/ser moninfo.asp?sid=1200312549 |
