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USER COMMENTS BY DEEP IN HISTORY |
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| RECENTLY-COMMENTED SERMONS | More | Last Post | Total |
· Page 1 · Found: 4 user comments posted recently. |
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7/6/11 12:07 PM |
Deep in History | | | |
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The Master's Slave wrote: Please read this following article on this subject and hopefully through the Holy Spirit, your eyes will be opened. http://revivalandreformation.wordpress.com/2011/07/06/john-3-who-is-the-son/ John 3 is very significant to the whole council of God. However, does John 3 answer all of these questions? (a.) Is Jesus a man? (b.) Is Jesus a god? (c.) Is Jesus The God? (d.) Is Jesus of one substance with the Father? (e.) Was Jesus begotten? (f.) If (e.), how does the passage define "begotten"? (g.) How exactly did Jesus get here? If John 3 is the common Protestant gospel summary, does it answer these questions? If not, how do we know that we're following the true biblical Jesus and not merely following a heretical and false teaching about him? |
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7/6/11 10:40 AM |
Deep in History | | | |
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John UK wrote: I don't know about the Protestant one, but mine is: For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life. John 3:16 KJV This is the gospel message of salvation by grace through faith alone in Christ alone. They've been discussing sola scriptura in this thread. To the person reading the Bible for the first time, where will she find "salvation by grace through faith alone in Christ alone"?Also, in John 3:16, who exactly is the "son"? If we ask certain Pentecostals they'll say there's only one person in the Trinity not 3. Are they saved despite not defining the "son" in relationship to the 4th Century defined Trinity? Others will say the "son" was only a good man. Are these saved? Without defining exactly who the "son" is in John 3:16, can it be a complete creedal salvific statement? Since the Nicene Creed defines all of this, and has since the 4th Century, what Bible verse(s) or Reformation creed has superseded it? |
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