Q&A with Alan Cairns are brief, straightforward, Bible-based, video answers presented in a conversational format that deal with a broad range of difficult questions that face Christians today.
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“ Great Sermon! ” With my respect to the good speaker, I believe that the scripture gave a simple and clear answer to this question:
It was his revelation to Israel as the Christ, The annointed one! ... as it is clearly indicated in John 1:31-33 ...
Joh 1:31-ESV "I myself did not know him, but for this purpose I came baptizing with water, that he might be revealed to Israel."
God bless you,
RR
J L (5/30/2011)
from USA
“ Adding for the hopes of edification... ” I have something to mention about the water baptism of Jesus. There are some peculiarities in this area of Scripture I have considered also regarding the subject. To begin, consider what was said in Heb.7:11-19 speaking of a changing of the priesthood in vs.12. John the baptizer was of the line of Aaron, and thus according to the law, could qualify as a priest. With this in mind, remember the statement about unloosing Christ's shoe's latchet. Also there is a description in Ruth about the plucking off of the shoe as a testimony (Ruth4:7). Could this washing be cerimonially pertaining to the priesthood being changed? Did not the priest's partake in cerimonial washings (Heb.9:10; Ex.29:4, etc.)? Would this be considered of the like? Jesus Christ needed no repentance, but was alltogether unspotted.
Another thing I have noticed in John 17:17-19, was that in vs.19 Jesus mentions in His prayer to the Father, that He/I...sactify Myself, that they also may be sactified by the truth...
Being that He was Holy and without blemish, could this be a reference to Him taking upon Himself our sins, and thus like explained in Gal3:13 being made a curse for us: subsequently being made Holy by the resurrection from the dead?See also Rm4:25&7:4&10:17;Gal3:2 Thank you for your work in the Lord!
J L (5/30/2011)
from USA
“ Adding for the hopes of edification... ” There is also something I learned about the verse: 2Co 5:21 For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.
That word "sin" in the phrase "...made Him to be sin for us..." is in the original language, Greek, for the New Testament. I learned that the same word in the Old Testament Greek (LXX) is translated "sin offering" in the KJV, of the same verse, which uses the Masoretic Hebrew. This can be utilized to better understand Christ's role as a "sin offering", thus minimizing confusions that may come up with the wording "...He was made to be sin...". It has help me, so maybe others can be help with this also. An example of this is as follows:
Exo 29:36 And thou shalt offer every day a bullock for a sin offering for atonement: and thou shalt cleanse the altar, when thou hast made an atonement for it, and thou shalt anoint it, to sanctify it.
Exo 29:36 καιG2532 τοG3588 μοσχαριονG3446.2 τοG3588 τηςG3588 αμαρτιαςG266 ποιησειςG4160 τηG3588 ημεραG2250 τουG3588 καθαρ&#
Karen (4/27/2009)
from Texas
“ Great Sermon! ” The best explanation of baptism I have heard yet!
Dr. Alan Cairns served for 25 years as pastor of Faith Free Presbyterian Church, Greenville, SC, before retiring and being named Pastor Emeritus in 2007. Prior to coming to the United States, he pastored Free Presbyterian churches in Dunmurry and Ballymoney, in Co. Antrim,...
#7 - Top Played Sermon (48-Hours) on 3/17/2013
