"For Christ also hath once suffered for sins, the just for the unjust, that he might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh, but quickened by the Spirit."
Why Christ died and for whom Christ died are linked together. Was His sacrifice actually effective by God's will or only potentially effective by man's will? I argue the former (the Reformed view) and deny the latter (the Roman Catholic view).
Christ died for a people, not just a possibility.
I. Christ's Sacrifice Was an Actual Substitution II. Christ's Sacrifice Was an Actual Redemption (Ransom) III. Christ's Sacrifice Was an Actual Propitiation IV. Christ's Sacrifice Was an Actual Reconciliation V. Christ's Sacrifice Was for All Kinds of People
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Pastor D. Scott Meadows has been an elder at the Calvary Baptist Church (Reformed) of Exeter, New Hampshire, since 1991. Pastor Meadows holds a bachelor's degree in electrical engineering and a master's degree in Christian theology. He left his engineering career for pastoral...