How do we correlate these two verses? James 2:24 “Ye see then how that by works a man is justified, and not by faith only” Romans 3:28 “Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law.”
Paul If we read the third chapter of Romans and the overall context of the chapter (and the preceding chapters) we see that the Apostle is establishing the that sin is universal – all have sinned; Vs. 10-11 “There is none righteous, no, not one: there is none that understandeth, there is none that seeketh after God.” After dwelling on this subject for some time, he brings it to it's logical conclusion in verse 28 “…a man is justified by faith, without the deeds of the law” – he cannot save himself by works. Paul is preaching to a self-righteous people, against salvation by works.
James On the other hand, and equally important, James is preaching to antinomians (against law) and telling them that saving faith in God, and a disregard for his law are contradictory. If you love the Lord you will love his laws and keep it.
He is establishing the fact that one cannot claim to know and love Christ and not keep his commandment. He says “Even so faith, if it hath not works is dead, being alone.” James argues then that we are justified by a “living faith” a “working faith” in other words a faith that shows itself to be alive. James says therefore that this justification is by faith and works, they go together (Vs. 24b cf. Vs. 14).
The Apostle John says in I John 3:24 “…he that keepeth His commandments dwelleth in Him, and He in him.” and in 5:3 “For this is the love of God, that we keep his commandments.”
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Aaron Dunlop, who is originally from Northern Ireland, graduated from the Geneva Reformed Seminary, SC. He pastored for ten years in Victoria, British Columbia and is currently preparing to move to Kenya with his family to work with the FAME Reformed Theological College.
