Why is it that so-called Christians are not being sincere about efforts of candidates of the choice in ending abortion? Is it not known that reversing Roe V. Wade would not be enough to stop the slaughter or innocents. If it were, it would once again be left up to the states, which would once again pass laws allowing for it in cases of rape or incest. I've tried to find in the Bible where God provides and allows for those exceptions, but can't.
As a Christian, I'm against abortion under all circumstances.
What's the big deal here? What does "the Judges will be pro-life" mean? They truly won't be, because being pro-life means seeing (reverently) it (sanctity of all the unborn) as God sees it, without exception (case of rape or incest) or qualification. It wasn't overturned when the church of Rome's representative, Scalia, was on the court. What has changed? At the end of the day, it will go back to the states, where most of the states will enact laws to "ban" abortion, but makes exceptions as they did previously for rape or incest. Man I'd hate to be the fetus that was aborted simply by reason of circumstance or sin not my own.
Historic wrote: Perhaps you need to look at [URL=http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jewish_diaspora]]]The Old Testament Diaspora.[/URL]
Thank you for the hyperlink, "Historic". I read that Wikipedia webpage and it mentioned nothing of Peru or Mexico or Japan or North America. If I had to go by what was written on that webpage, then it seems that I can not read Acts 2:5 in a strict, literal sense. So perhaps "Neil" was correct in that the phrase in Acts 2:5 ("every nation under heaven") does not mean literally every nation under heaven.
Neil wrote: "Help me out" Acts 2:5 is a similar problem to Luke 3:1, "...a census be taken of all the inhabited earth." From history we know that Rome did not rule the whole planet. They did not even control Sassanian Persia or India, which nations were presumably familiar to literate men of the day like the Gospel writers. Therefore, Luke must have been referring to the portion of the world controlled by Rome, and Acts 2:5 refers to all nations wherein Jews lived This is reasonable, for even today, we omit needlessly pedantic qualifiers for categorical adjectives; e.g., you may hear folks say, "everyone has an iPod." The Bible was written using everyday language rich with idiom, & not in the pedantic, dry scholastic style expected from university Ph.Ds (which is not immune to idiom anyway). By the way, it is by no means certain that China should be ruled out as a place inhabited by Jews.
That is great information. Thank you Neil. And thank you "Historic" and "interesting" for your contributions about Jews in China. However, I do not know if these Chinese Jews were a part of that first Pentecost in Acts 2:5.
Now does anyone want to tackle Peru or Mexico or Japan or North America in regard to Acts 2:5? ("Every nation under heaven?")