Hope the following can shed some light on the subject. SermonAudio.com is opposed to the official doctrines of the Catholic Church and is unapologetically a Protestant site. 160. What worship does the Church of Rome teach should be given to the mother of our Lord?
Prayers are addressed to her and she is honoured with hyperdulia: this is a word coined by the Church to indicate the highest kind of worship which, according to her, may be given to a created being. A careful review of Rome's books of devotion affords the fullest proof that among Romanists Mary divides the honours of Divine Worship and even Divinity with the Supreme Being.
163. Is this doctrine taught in the New Testament or was it known in the early church?
The whole Word of God teaches the contrary, even as Paul declares that all have sinned and fallen short of the glory of God. Mary's own language confirms that she acknowledged she was a sinner and needed salvation when she exclaimed: "My spirit hath rejoiced in God my Saviour." The teaching was unknown to the apostolic church, and in the writing of the fathers of the first five centuries it was never once mentioned. Not one great name can be quoted for it during the first eleven centuries. On the contrary, no fewer than fourteen Popes oppose it.
170. What are the three names which Rome uses which more than any others exalt Mary?
She is called the Daughter of God the Father, the Mother of God the Son, and the Spouse of the Holy Ghost. Such names most plainly imply that Mary is honoured as the fourth person of the Godhead, for more exalted names could not be given to the Divine Being.
173. Does Rome make Mary a partner mediator with Christ in the work of redemption?
Yes. She declares it to be absolutely necessary to the salvation of the sinner. Her words are: "Because men fear Jesus Christ, that Divine Person who is destined one day to judge them, it has been necessary to give them a Mediator with the Mediator, and none was so fit for this office as Mary His mother." Accordingly she teaches that "no grace, no pardon emanates from the Throne of the King of kings without passing through the hands of Mary [...]; no one enters Heaven without passing through her."
You can read the entire article at http://www.ianpaisley.org/article.asp?ArtKey=bible13.
67. What is the correct interpretation of the words: 'This is my Body and this is my Blood'?
These words of Jesus must be interpreted spiritually. The bread and wine are symbols of His Body and His Blood. As Jesus was present in person at the Last Supper when He said: 'This is my body', and His whole Body was present, these words must have been symbolical. At the same time Jesus' Blood had not been shed, therefore the words 'This is my blood' must also have been symbolical.
When debating Tom Corbishley, the head of the Jesuit Order, I put to him the question which he was never able to answer. Did he believe, when Jesus said: 'I am the door', that Jesus was a literal door with four panels, a handle and a keyhole? - and when Jesus said: 'I am the true vine',did he believe that Jesus Christ was the literal trunk of a vine tree?
Figurative language such as this is used every day. For instance, a portrait of a person is painted and one describing it says: 'This is Mr. So and so.' Now he does not mean that it is literally the person who is portrayed: he means rather that it is a representation of the person who is portrayed.
'This is My Body' - that is the divinely appointed representation of My Body.
'This is my Blood' - that is the divinely appointed representation of My Blood.
Christ emphasised that His Feast was to be a remembrance one. 'This do in remembrance of Me.' You can only remember a person when he is not literally and bodily present with you. If Christ is literally and bodily on the altar, as Rome proclaims, then the Feast ceases to be one of remembrance, and that destroys the very foundation of the Lord's Supper.
68. What is the correct interpretation of John 6:54: 'Whosoever eateth my flesh and drinketh my blood hath eternal life, and I will raise him up at the last day'?
This passage can have no direct reference to the Sacrament of the Lord's Supper because the evident fact is that two Passovers (the Passover was a yearly feast) elapsed between the delivery of these words and the institution of the Sacrament (compare John 6:4 with John 12:1); but Christ uses the present tense: 'Except ye eat.' It was their duty right away to eat of that spiritual food, even at the very time when He was delivering His discourse; therefore the words cannot refer to a Sacrament not even then instituted. Even Rome herself does not receive the absolute literacy of these words, for it says here that the Blood must be drunk; yet for centuries Rome refused the wine to her communicants.
If the words 'Except ye eat the flesh of the Son of Man and drink His Blood ye have no life in you' referred to the Sacrament and were to be understood literally, this would prove that all who do not receive the Sacrament must perish, yet baptised infants who have not received the Sacrament, according to Rome, are saved. Moreover, if it is received literally then it proves that all communicants are saved. Rome herself will not admit that that is the case. Then what does it mean?
The Scriptures are the best interpreters of themselves. It says in verse 58: 'He that eateth of this bread shall live for ever.' Compare that with John 3:36: 'He that believeth on the Son hath everlasting life.' There are not two ways of salvation, one by the Sacrament and the other by faith. Eating the bread is a representation of what happens when a person believes, he partakes of everlasting life through the Son of God. Verse 35 of the chapter gives the key to the interpretation: 'He that cometh to me shall never hunger' - that is, eating Christ's flesh. How do we eat Christ's flesh? By coming to Him.
'And he that believeth on me shall never thirst.' How do we drink Christ's Blood? By believing on Him. We feed on Christ by coming to him. We drink His Blood by believing on Him. Salvation is by faith alone.
In verses 62-63 the Saviour explains His meaning clearly. He says: 'What and if ye shall see the Son of Man ascend up where He was before. It is the Spirit that quickeneth; the flesh (mark the words) profiteth nothing: the words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life.'
What was Christ saying? He was saying: 'Do you think that I am speaking of My literal flesh? But my literal flesh shall ascend to heaven, far beyond the reach of being eaten by man. The flesh profiteth nothing. Even though you were to partake of My body, it would not save your souls. The words that I speak unto you, they are the spirit, and they are the life. They have a spiritual signification and they show that you must feed on Me by faith, for he that cometh to Me shall never hunger, and he that believeth on Me shall never thirst. Jesus constantly used figurative language in order to enforce the truths which He taught. Instances of such figurative language are found also in Isaiah 55:1-3; John 7:37-39; Matthew 16:5-11.
69. What other Scriptural facts prove the Roman doctrine of Transubstantiation is a lie?
ONE: The Lord's Supper was commemorative as was the Passover. The Passover Lamb commemorated the Passover, when the Lord said 'this Passover' He meant this commemoration of the Passover. Likewise when He said: 'This is my body,' He spoke of the Supper as a commemorative feast to be observed in remembrance of Him.
TWO: The apostolic reception of Christ's words. The apostles, it is evident, understood our Lord as we do. They were accustomed to figurative language in which the Saviour constantly spoke and which was the current language of the day. There was no argument at the Table concerning these words: 'This is my body', 'This is my blood', for the disciples knew He was speaking in figurative language.
THREE: The Feast is commemorative from Christ's own words: 'Do this in remembrance of me' and from the apostolic declaration: 'For as often as ye eat this bread and drink this cup, ye do show the Lord's death till He come.' (I Corinthians 11:26.) How could it be done in remembrance of Him if He were literally present in Body, Blood, Soul and Deity?
FOUR: The words themselves refute Transubstantiation; the apostolic account is destructive of this dogma. It says in I Corinthians 11:23-26 that the cup is the New Testament: here is a double figure of speech. Firstly the cup is put for the wine and secondly the cup is called the New Testament.We ask: Was the cup literally transubstantiated into the New Testament? Notice the apostle used the word: 'After the same manner He took the cup' - that is, the manner in which He took the bread. It therefore cannot and does not mean that the bread was literally Christ's Body or the wine literally Christ's Blood, or the cup literally the New Testament.
You can read the entire article at http://www.ianpaisley.org/article.asp?ArtKey=bible5.